For me, the language of Return of the King is grander, more "biblical, than the earlier volumes. Before I knew the history of the writing, I thought it was because Gondor was a more regal kingdom than rustic Rohan or the almost foreign Elvish lands the Hobbits visit. In Gondor the people use older English terms: verily, thee, plight their troth...

I ask you to look for this change and your opinion. Was Tolkien deliberate in using this higher language to represent the ancientness of the land, harkening back to the Númenóreans or was it post pause in the writing?

I too notice the difficulty in reading the final half of Two Towers as the ring approaches Mordor - it's the hardest part for me to read. Is it the setting, the syntax, the pacing? I'm not sure, so your thoughts as you read it will be appreciated.