If an act of violence, destruction or interference can be shown to be part of a pattern of support for enemy war efforts, then yes, I agree.

If there is any exchange of any sort between the American actors and an enemy organization or individual, I agree.

If martial law is in force in the United States, of course the definition of sabotage as de facto treason will be accepted and acted upon.

Outside of any of those conditions, no.

Remember that terrorism is not always treason, either, but it is always criminal.

And of course, there would have to be a declaration of war to establish that it was legally wartime sabotage, under civil law, and not "merely" a destructive act of politically-motivated violence.

Selling state secrets comes under a separate rule. The Cold War was undeclared, but espionage has always had a different rule book.

Regards--
Mary Anne