So if a judge overrode a popular law barring unrelated, left-handed people from marrying
would you also consider that to be judicial fiat? As long as a law is passed by a democratically elected legislature, it's okay, no matter how discriminatory? A judge doesn't have the right to act to protect the rights of a minority from blatant discrimination and exclusion, especially upon grounds of unconstitutionality (whether state or federal)??
