I won't quibble.
And I will skip past all the non sequitur stuff, to:
The effect that is known as a “magnetic field†is a “field†that must always be associated with two “charges,†if the charges are isolated or considered independently then they are simply “charges†and not magnetic “monopoles.†(Also non sequitur stuff, now that I think about it. But it is the only part of your post that seemed to be directed to my question.)
So back to my question: what is the connection between your magic equation and magnetic monopoles? Where in your equation does it talk about magnetic polarity and quantum particles?